Welcome to episode 87 of the Audio PANCE and PANRE PA Board Review Podcast.
Join me as I cover ten internal medicine rotation EOR content blueprint questions from the Smarty PANCE physician assistant board and rotation review website.
Special from today’s episode:
Below you will find an interactive exam to complement the podcast.
I hope you enjoy this free audio component to the examination portion of this site. The full board review course includes over 2,000 interactive board review questions and is available to all members of Smarty PANCE.
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The following questions are linked to PAEA Content Blueprint lessons from the Smarty PANCE and PANRE Board Review Website. If you are a member, you will be able to login and view this interactive video lesson.
1. A 67-year-old man with a long history of constipation presents with steady left lower quadrant pain. Physical exam reveals low-grade fever, mid abdominal distention, and lower left quadrant tenderness. Stool guaiac is negative. An absolute neutrophilic leukocytosis and a shift to the left are noted on the CBC. Which of the following is the most accurate test for this patient’s condition?
A Barium enema
C CT scan
Answer: C CT scan
Diverticulitis presents with left lower quadrant abdominal pain, systemic symptoms (such as fever), nausea, vomiting, and leukocytosis on lab values. It typically occurs in a patient with a history of diverticulosis. The most accurate test for diverticulitis is a CT scan. Colonoscopy is contraindicated as it could cause rupture. Further management is keeping the patient NPO and administering ciprofloxacin, metronidazole, and IV fluids. Patients who can not tolerate oral antibiotics should be started on IV antibiotics. (Review topic: Diverticular disease)
2. A 42-year-old homeless man presents to the emergency department with fever, painful muscle spasms in his arms and legs, and difficulty eating because of painful spasms in his jaw muscles. Until a week ago, he was wandering around the city looking for food and work and taking shelter in a commercial construction site. He reports not having seen a medical professional in more than 15 years. Examination of his feet reveals shoes with holes in the soles and a small, puncture-type wound on the bottom of the right foot. It is surrounded by erythema and somewhat tender to touch. The patient is uncertain what he may have stepped on. X-ray is negative for any radiopaque foreign body. In addition to hospital admission, which of the following is the first-line therapy for this patient?
A Tetanus immune globulin and tetanus toxoid
B Tetanus immune globulin and metronidazole
C Tetanus toxoid and penicillin
D Tetanus immune globulin, tetanus toxoid, and metronidazole
The answer is D Tetanus immune globulin, tetanus toxoid, and metronidazole
Clostridium tetani infection is a vaccine-preventable disease that results in approximately 50 cases per year in the United States. Even with modern medical resources, 20% to 25% of patients with generalized tetanus die. Treatment includes airway protection, benzodiazepines for muscle spasm, tetanus immune globulin immediately, and three doses of tetanus toxoid given by the standard schedule. Metronidazole or penicillin is also administered to destroy the organism and prevent toxin production. (Review topic: Tetanus)
3. A 21-year-old male presents to the ED with increasing dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain of sudden onset after getting hit in the left side of the chest during a bar fight. Examination reveals moderate respiratory distress with an absence of breath sounds and hyperresonance to percussion on the left, with tracheal deviation to the right. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
A Order a V/Q scan
B Order a chest x-ray
C Administer a sclerosing agent
D Insert a large-bore needle into the left 2nd ICS stat
The answer is D Insert a large-bore needle into the left 2nd ICS stat
Simple aspiration by insertion of a needle into the involved side will decompress the tension pneumothorax until a chest tube can be inserted. (Review topic: Pneumothorax)
4. A 55-year-old woman with a history of ulcerative colitis presents to the emergency department with a severe flare. The patient reports numerous bloody loose stools and has been febrile for two days. Vital signs are T 102.0 HR 98 BP 131/86 RR 17 Sat 100%. The abdominal exam is notable for markedly distended abdomen with tympani and tenderness to palpation without guarding or rebound. A CT scan shows a markedly dilated descending and sigmoid colon with no perforations. What is the next best step in management for this patient?
A Oral prednisone
B IV hydrocortisone
C Rectal 5-ASA
D IV Metoclopramide
E IV Ondansetron
The answer is B IV hydrocortisone
This patient is presenting with toxic megacolon secondary to ulcerative colitis (UC). The first-line treatment for patients with toxic megacolon from UC is IV glucocorticoids to reduce inflammation and the need for surgical intervention. (Review topic: Ulcerative colitis)
5. A 21-year-old male with hematemesis. He is brought by his girlfriend who reports that he and his buddies have been out drinking every night last week in celebration of his 21st birthday. He reports having vomited each night, but tonight when he started vomiting, he noticed that there was streaking of blood. Concerned, he decided to come to the emergency department. Which of the following best describes the most likely diagnosis?
A Dilated submucosal esophageal veins
B Gastric mucosal erosion
C Mucosal tear at the gastroesophageal junction
D Transmural distal esophagus tear
E Transmural erosion of the gastric wall
The answer is C Mucosal tear at the gastroesophageal junction
This patient is presenting with blood in his vomitus after forceful vomiting suggesting a diagnosis of a Mallory-Weiss tear. A Mallory-Weiss tear occurs secondary to a mucosal laceration at the gastroesophageal junction. (Review topic: Mallory-Weiss tear)
6. A 25-year old female presents to the clinic with an 8-month history of intermittent crampy lower abdominal pain, with the passage of loose stools 4 times a day. Pain is usually worse during her menstrual period and is relieved by defecation. She also feels bloated. She says she has been undergoing work-related stress for months. There are no ALARM symptoms and there are no significant findings on physical examination. Which of the following is associated with this patient’s condition?
A Alvarado score
B Ranson criteria
C Rome criteria
D Revised Jones criteria
The answer is C Rome criteria
The diagnosis of IBS can be made using the Rome criteria if patients have no red flag findings, such as rectal bleeding, weight loss, and fever, or other findings that might suggest another etiology. Patients with one of these red flag findings require further imaging studies and/or colonoscopy. (Review topic: Irritable bowel syndrome)
7. A 56-year-old woman came to the clinic complaining of a lump protruding from her anal opening. It was initially reducible, but it now irreducible. There is associated pain and itching. She also noticed bright red blood on her stool when she defecates. There is an associated history of chronic constipation. Examination of the perianal area revealed skin tags and a tender perianal mass covered with mucosa. Inspection of the anal mucosa showed no fissure. What is the grade of the condition?
A Grade I
B Grade II
C Grade III
D Grade IV
Answer: D Grade IV
This is a Grade IV permanently prolapsed hemorrhoid. (Review topic: Hemorrhoids)
8. A 45-year-old male presents with complaints of heartburn, belching, and epigastric pain for the past six months. He reports that symptoms occur within an hour of eating a meal and are aggravated by drinking coffee, eating fatty foods, and lying down. He has tried eating smaller meals and avoiding spicy food to no avail. He denies vomiting, difficulty swallowing, recent weight loss, or changes in stool color. His temperature is 98.9 °F, blood pressure is 147/82 mmHg, pulse is 86/min, respirations are 18/min, and BMI is 32 kg/m^2. His abdomen is soft, non-tender, and bowel sounds are auscultated in all quadrants. His laboratories are unremarkable and his fecal occult blood test (FOBT) is negative. What is the next best step in this patient’s management?
A 24-hour pH monitoring
The answer is E. Omeprazole
GERD is a common complaint at primary care offices. It classically presents with heartburn, epigastric pain, and a sour taste that occurs within an hour of consuming a meal. PPIs are the initial medical management, except in the case of alarm symptoms. Any patient with symptoms of GERD accompanied by dysphagia, recurrent vomiting, weight loss, hematemesis, anemia, melena, or age > 50 should undergo endoscopy as these are considered high risk for the presence of an upper gastrointestinal malignancy. (Review topic: Gastroesophageal reflux disease)
9. A 65-year old man who is being managed for lung cancer on the ward makes a complaint of a 2-day history of the passage of nonbloody watery stool up to 4 times per day, anorexia, cramping abdominal pain, and fever. Meanwhile, he had a 10-day course of antibiotics 4 weeks ago on account of a lung infection. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his diarrhea:
C Clostridium difficile
D E. coli
The answer is C Clostridium difficile
Clostridium difficile colitis results from a disturbance of the normal bacterial flora of the colon, colonization by C. difficile, and the release of toxins that cause mucosal inflammation. Antibiotic therapy is the key factor that alters the colonic flora. (Review topic: Gastroenteritis)
10. A 37-year-old male with a history of daily NSAID use complains of epigastric pain, nausea, and vomiting, all worsened by eating. On physical examination, he is tender to palpation in the epigastrium. He admits to drinking approximately two beers per day. He was prescribed a course of ranitidine followed by omeprazole after his symptoms did not resolve. He was referred for endoscopy, with findings consistent with a gastric ulcer. Biopsy with silver staining is positive for H-Pylori. Which of the following is the most effective regimen for the treatment of this condition?
A Omeprazole, metronidazole, tetracycline, bismuth
B Omeprazole, penicillin, famotidine
C Amoxicillin, clarithromycin
D Pantoprazole and levofloxacin
The answer is C. Omeprazole, metronidazole, tetracycline, bismuth
This patient presents with H. pylori gastritis complicated by a peptic ulcer. Treatment for H. pylori is with triple or quadruple therapy. Omeprazole, metronidazole, tetracycline, and bismuth are appropriate quadruple therapy. (Review topic: Esophagitis)
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